Answers

  • Amd
  • Ambitious
2015-06-09T17:32:32+05:30
Nope It is because If the roots are rational then automatically after calculation the product will also be rational and if the roots are irrational then the roots will also be irrational.I'm talking about quadratic equations but in bi-quadratic equations the case is not possibleĀ if the coefficients are irrational then the roots can be rational
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