Answers

2014-01-25T23:07:06+05:30
For this you should know that the area of a parallelogram is equal to base*height where height is the perpendicular distance between the 2 parallels of the parallelogram. in the question it is given that the bases are equal and the parallelograms are between the same parallels. therefore both base and height are equal and hence their areas are also equal.
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