Free help with homework

Why join Brainly?

  • ask questions about your assignment
  • get answers with explanations
  • find similar questions


Suppose $g_1$ and $g_2$ are both inverses to $f$. Then $$ g_1=g_1\circ i_B=g_1\circ (f\circ g_2)=(g_1\circ f)\circ g_2=i_A\circ g_2= g_2, $$ proving the theorem.$\square$Because of theorem  we can talk about "the'' inverse of $f$, assuming it has one; we write $f^{-1}$ for the inverse of $f$. Note well that this extends the meaning of "$f^{-1}$'', in a potentially confusing way.
0 0 0
The Brain
  • The Brain
  • Helper
Not sure about the answer?
Learn more with Brainly!
Having trouble with your homework?
Get free help!
  • 80% of questions are answered in under 10 minutes
  • Answers come with explanations, so that you can learn
  • Answer quality is ensured by our experts