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See, as we already know that rectangle is a //gm . And if two //gms are on the same base and between same parallels they are equal in area.
That was very simple. I thought that this answer is wrong but when i cunsulted with my maths teacher she told me that is is the correct way but if it comes in more than 3 marks then we have to prove the theorem 'parallelograms on the same bease and between the same parallels are equal in area..
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ya actually i got my question wrong....but thanks anyway....try answering my next question
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