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1:1 will be ratio because parallelograms on equal bases and between same parellels are equal in area.
2 5 2
tq so much
thanks for marking it as brainliest answer
Since acc to theorem if 2 parallelograms lie on same base n b/w same parallel dey r equal in ar. Therefore ratio will be 1:1
2 5 2
tq so much.
Unr welcum
brainliest anss plss..plsss
sry he answered first.
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