Log in to add a comment

Log in to add a comment

therefore, other number will be 51-x

(x) (51-x)=378

51x- x^{2} =378

taking 51x - x^{2} onthe right side we get

x^{2} - 51x + 378=0

x(x-42) -9(x-42)=0

(x-42)(x-9)=0

x-42=0 x-9=0

x=42 x=9

therefore x can be 42,9

if one number is 42, then the other numberis 9

The Brainliest Answer!

Then the other part will be 51-y.

According to the question,

y*(51-y)=378

51y-y²=378

y²-51y+378=0

y²-42y-9y+378=0

y(y-42)-9(y-42)=0

(y-42)(y-9)=0

y=9,42

Therefore we must divide 51 into 42 and 9.