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2014-06-29T21:46:19+05:30
No. The French Revolution of 1789 was a middle-class rebellion against the privileges of the aristocracy and the clergy. It was never intended to produce a democratic form of government and, in that sense, was nothing like the American Revolution of 1776. 

Almost immediately after 1789, the French Revolution became a scramble for power between groups of middle-class politicians and professionals. By 1793, another revolution was required to oust the Jacobins who had simply become a dictatorial group. But then in 1799, Bonaparte organised an army coup and France became a military dictatorship; complete with secret police, institutionalised torture, assassinations and forced exile. 

This lasted only for 5 years. In 1804, Bonaparte was crowned as Emperor of the French and France became a monarchy again. Monarchy continued in France in the hands of different families until 1870; almost 100 years after the revolution that overthrew King Louis XVI. 

So France had no experience of democracy after 1789, until perhaps the early years of the 20th century. The Third Republic of 1870 was a weak, corrupt and class-ridden form of government; again dominated by just 4 or 5 political families, even after the monarchy was finally abandoned. 

The main origins of modern democracy lie with the Levellers of the 1640s in England, with the Bill of Rights 1689 in England, the Declaration of Independence in USA in 1776, the Chartist Movement in UK during 1838-48, and the many popular revolutions in Europe in 1830 and 1848. 
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